Paul and the Revision Committee.
By Ellet Joseph Waggoner
IN the eighth psalm, one of the most beautiful compositions ever written, occurs this passage, which has become familiar even to those not intimately acquainted with the Bible: "When I consider thy heavens, the work of thy fingers, the moon and the stars, which thou hast ordained; what is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him? For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honor." Verses 3-5. In the New Version the 5th verse reads thus: "For thou hast made him but little lower than God, and crownest him with glory and honor." A religious journal, in noting some changes in familiar texts, puts this text in a group of which it says: "The following changes have perhaps been necessary, but grate sadly against literary associations." For ourselves, we can say that the change grates sadly against Scriptural associations, and we do not believe it to be at all necessary. We give the following reason why we dare disagree with the learned Revision Committee:— In the second chapter of Hebrews, the apostle, in showing how Christ, who had "by inheritance" a more excellent name than the angels, was made on a level with man, quotes the words of the psalmist concerning man, as follows: "But one in a certain place testified, saying, What is man, that thou art mindful of him? or the son of man, that thou visitest him? Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownest him with glory and honor." Heb. 2:6, 7. Here the Greek word is angelos, the word invariably rendered "angel." There is no question but that the apostle used the word angelos (plural form) in quoting from Ps. 8:5, and the Revision Committee have agreed that it is correctly rendered "angels," since it is so rendered in the New Version. But if "angels" is the proper word to use in quoting from Ps. 8:5, and the authority of an inspired apostle ought certainly to settle that point, why should not the same word be used in the passage itself? By what authority did the revisers use the word "God" in rendering the Hebrew word which Paul translates "angels"? It is true that the Hebrew word in Ps. 8:5 is eloheem, a word that is usually used with reference to a deity, either the true God or a false god, and there is no other place in the Old Testament where it is rendered "angels;" and therefore the revisers doubtless thought that consistency required them to render it "God" in this instance. But we are certain that consistency would require instead that the text should agree with the same text as translated by the inspired writer of the book of Hebrews. In other words, even though the lexicons knew nothing650about such a rendering of eloheem, Heb 2:7 would show that in one instance, at least, it undoubtedly refers to angels. And the Revision Committee, in retaining the word "angels" in Heb. 2:7, while they rejected it in Ps. 8:5, have convicted themselves of inconsistency. Such renderings go a long ways toward making some people doubt whether the New Version is a decided improvement on the Old. At any rate, we do not feel inclined to use it to the exclusion of the Old Version. While we find it very valuable as a commentary, we regard it in that light, and cannot rely upon it with that confidence that we do upon the version commonly used. A translator of the Bible needs, far more than the commentator, to be acquainted with the entire Bible, and thoroughly imbued with its spirit. We very much doubt if it is possible for any body of men to agree upon a version of the Bible that will be superior to King James's version.