Question by John Norton Loughborough

Pacific Seventh-day Adventist Publishing Association · Oakland, Cal. · Jul 29, 1875

Question.

By John Norton Loughborough

"Bro. Loughborough :—What day do you think John had reference to where he says 'I was in the spirit on the Lord's day'? Rev. 1 : 10. If he meant a day of the week, I am inclined to think that he referred to the seventh—the Sabbath of the Lord, it being the only day he sanctified and blessed.

"The seventh-day Sabbath was observed by Christians in John's day, and it was the only day then distinguished as the Lord's day, and could not possibly have had any reference to Sunday as holy or sacred time. I would like to know what you think about it, and if of sufficient importance, please reply through the SIGNS, and oblige others as well as myself. Yours truly, B. G. ST. JOHN."

Reply : I am of the same opinion as yourself, that the term Lord's day of Rev. 1 : 10, refers to the seventh-day Sabbath. The fourth commandment calls it "The Sabbath of the Lord thy God." Ex. 20. The Lord by Isaiah calls the Sabbath "My holy day." Isa. 58 : 13. Christ says, "The Son of man is Lord also of the Sabbath day." Matt. 12 : 28. We would suppose the above expressions were evidence that the seventh-day was the Lord's day, inasmuch as he has called that day his.

The Lord has never said in his word that the first day was his holy day, or that men should keep it. Rev. 1 : 10 speaks familiarly of the day as though all would understand what it meant. "The Lord's day"—the day God has reserved to himself. According to Scripture that day is the Sabbath.

John wrote his gospel two years after he wrote the book of Revelation. In his gospel he designates the first day by the simple title of "first day of the week," and gives no hint that it has become a holy day.

A minister in Sonoma Co. once told us that we could "not tell by the Bible what day was the Lord's day, but to settle that question we would have to go to history." If we appeal to history in this case, we shall find Mr. Kitto stating in his Cyclopedia of Biblical Literature, original edition, Art., Lord's day, that Tertullian, who wrote A. D. 200, gives the earliest authentic instance," in

which the name Lord's day is applied to the first day of the week.

To show the manner in which Tertullian regarded the new institution we will quote one of his statements : "As often as the anniversary comes round we make offerings for the dead. As birth-day honors. We count fasting or kneeling in worship on the Lord's day to be unlawful. At every forward step and movement, at every going in and out, when we put on our clothes and shoes, when we bathe, when we sit at table, when we light the lamps, on couch, on seat, in all the ordinary actions of daily life, we trace upon the forehead the sign [of the cross].

"If, for these and other rules, you insist upon having positive Scripture injunction, you will find none. Tradition will be held forth to you as the originator of them, custom as their strengthener, and faith as their observer."

You will perceive that when Tertullian, mentions Sunday as Lord's day for the first time, he associates it with "offerings for the dead," and with making "the sign of the cross" on the forehead. When asked for Bible authority for all these things, he does not say we have John's testimony for applying the term Lord's day to the first day of the week, and tradition for offerings to the dead, but he says we "have tradition" for all of them. So we are left to conclude, of course, that they all come from the same source, and that one has as much divine authority for observance as the other.

For a more full exposition of this Lord's day question see a small pamphlet entitled, "Testimony of the Fathers," for sale at the SIGNS Office. J. N. L.