Questions Answered

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Pacific Seventh-day Adventist Publishing Association · Oakland, California · Jul 18, 1878

FromSigns of the Times, Vol. 4, No. 27.

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Questions Answered.

Question. The seventh verse of the 20th chapter of Acts says, "And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread," &c. Did they meet to partake of the sacrament, or was it an ordinary repast for refreshment? An individual who is well versed in the Scriptures, and professes to be an expounder of the same, said that the disciples met to partake of the Lord's supper on the first day of the week to commemorate or sanctify that day as the "Christian Sabbath." Even if it was the Lord's supper, it would not be sufficient evidence to prove that the first day is the "Sabbath of the Lord thy God." Not being positive that the disciples partook of the Lord's supper on that occasion, I ask for information, for myself and others. J. G. O.
Answer. There is no direct evidence that this breaking of bread was a communion season, but is supposed by many to be only a common meal. It says "when they had broken bread and eaten." Christ was made known to his disciples in "breaking bread." No one contends that that was a communion. Breaking bread seems to be an expression in the New Testament for partaking of a common meal.
Question. In what manner did Christ come, as is mentioned in Matt. 10:23—"Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel till the Son of man be come?" J. G. O.
Answer. By comparing these words with Matt. 10:1-6 you will see Christ had chosen the twelve and sent them forth into the cities of Israel, and by reading Matt 11:1, it appears that when he had made an end of commanding them, and sending them forth he himself went forth to teach in their cities. I suppose the idea was that before they should get through with that special mission in the cities of Israel he himself would come, that is, he would overtake them.
Question. Should a county assessor call on a Sabbath-keeper to assess his property on the Sabbath, would the latter be dishonoring that sacred day, by answering the questions in regard to the valuation of his property, etc., if the assessor should say that he could not call on any other day, and Saturday (Sabbath) was the only day on which he could receive statements from property owners, at his office? How would the law deal with a man who would refuse to give a statement of his property on Saturday, that being the day prescribed by law? J. G. O.
Answer. I think in a case like the above, I should procure one of the assessors blanks, fill it out, and make an affidavit to it beforehand, and when the assessor called upon the Sabbath, pass it over to him, stating the fact that I conscientiously observed the day as the Sabbath. With any reasonable man, there would be no further trouble, for the law is complied with. J. N. L.