Questions and Answers by Editor

The Seventh-day Adventist Publishing Association · Battle Creek, Mich. · Dec 20, 1864

Questions and Answers.

By Editor

We have received the following questions from Wm. P. Stewart, of Cedar Rapids, Iowa.

Question. In the Greek of Matt. xxviii, 1, the word, "Sabbaths," occurs twice. In the first instance it is translated "Sabbath," in the second, "the first day of the week." Do you approve of this translation? If you do, why? If you do not, then how would you translate it?

Answer. We do most heartily approve of the translation "first day of the week" in Matt. xxviii, 1, and its parallel passages. And the reason for this is, because the word Sabbaton after a numeral adjective is to be translated, week. And in every instance where the expression first day of the week occurs in the New Testament, this word, Sabbaton, does follow a numeral adjective, and in every such instance all authorities say that it is to be translated week, and that the numeral adjective marks the day of the week. See Religious Encyclopedia, Liddell and Scott, Robinson and Greenfield.

Ques. If the first day of the week is not to be kept as a holy rest, why is it invariably called Sabbath in the New Testament, except in Rev. i, 10?

Ans. If the first day of the week is to be kept as a holy rest, why is it not even once called Sabbath? for we have seen in the reply to the first question, that instead of being invariably called Sabbath it is not once so called. Nor does Rev. i, 10, refer to the first day of the week; if it does, and if the term "Lord's day" had become, as some contend, the usual designation for the first day of the week, at that time, why does not John, the writer of the Revelation, in his gospel which was written after the Revelation, call it the Lord's day, instead of simply first day of the week, when contrasting it with the Sabbath? The only day called the Lord's day any where in the Bible, is the seventh day of the week; and this day is in numerous instances emphatically designated in such a way as to show us that it belongs in a peculiar and absolute sense to the Lord. Not only is the first day never so designated; but while no repeal of the original law for the seventh day can be found, and no transfer of the blessing once pronounced upon it to any other day, no record can be produced of any blessing ever having been attached to first-day observance, nor any law for such observance.

Ques. Why is it said that the wicked go into everlasting punishment, Matt. xxv, 46, if your view of their destruction is correct?

Ans. Because everlasting death is everlasting punishment. The misunderstanding that arises on this text is occasioned by confounding the term punishment with conscious misery, whereas it does not necessarily mean such. Death is punishment. It is everlasting punishment if there is to be no release from it. Just as Paul in Heb. vi, 2, speaks of "eternal judgment"; not a judgment which is eternally going on, but one, the decisions of which are final, or eternal.

Question. If the keeping of the first day of the week is the mark of the beast now, why was it not in the days of Luther, or at any time before the sounding of the third angel's message?

Ans. Because they did not keep it as an act of obedience to the beast. Neither do we say that people keep it thus now, hence our theory accuses no one of yet having the mark of the beast in the sense of that message, and of being exposed to its threatening. But that message contemplates a time when the Sunday institution will be enforced in a special manner in opposition to the commandments of God; and enforced in such a way that none can yield to it without becoming worshipers of the beast. Such will then have received the mark, and become exposed to the threatened wrath.