908. Meaning of "Countenance."

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Pacific Press Publishing Company · Oakland, California · Feb 8, 1899

FromSigns of the Times, Vol. 25, No. 6.

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Question Corner
Question Corner

908. Meaning of "Countenance."

WHAT is the meaning of countenance in Ex. 23:3, "Neither shalt thou countenance a poor man in his cause"? and what is the cause there spoken of? J. H. McM.
The Revised Version gives the correct idea, "Thou shalt not favor a poor man," etc. The word "cause" means a contest, strife, personal or legal. The thought is that absolute justice shall be done. When men are in strife a man should not be favored because he is poor; he may be a poor scoundrel, warring against a wealthy benefactor.

909. The Day-Line.

WHAT change takes place in crossing over the international day-line? H. E. M.
In passing from America westward to Asia one drops a day from his reckoning; in crossing eastward one adds a day.

910. The Scapegoat.

How do you harmonize Lev. 16:5 with the idea that the scapegoat is Satan, when that verse maintains the scapegoat to be a sin-offering? Also please explain verse 10. N. McG.
No, verse 5 does not say that the scapegoat is a sin-offering. It merely declares that Aaron shall take two goats for a sin-offering; but verses 7 to 10 show what was done with these goats,—that only one was taken for the sin-offering, namely, the Lord's goat, while the other was "for Azazel" (R.V.), a name by which Satan was known. One goat represented Christ; the other, Satan. Upon the goat for Azazel was placed the sins (verse 21) of the people, and he was sent "away for Azazel into the wilderness" (verse 10, R.V.), typifying the binding of Satan (Rev. 20:1). He is a part in the finishing of the atonement, because he is destroyed with sin; and atonement in the universe of God is not complete till sin is destroyed. See "Looking unto Jesus," by U. Smith, or "Christ Our Advocate," by M. H. Brown, or "The Sanctuary and the Judgment." The last two are Nos. 127 and 25 of the Bible Students' Library.

911. Phil. 2:6. Equal with God.

Is Christ equal with God? J. S. M.
Yes, and no. We can not comprehend nor explain the mystery of the Godhead. In a sense, our Lord is equal with the Father (Prov. 8:22-30; Micah 5:2; John 10:30-32); in a sense, He is not, and yet He is God (John 1:1-3; 14:28; 1 Cor. 15:28). The rendering of Phil. 2:5-7 in the Revised Version (margin) is as follows: "Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus; who being originally in the form of God, counted it not a thing to be grasped to be on an equality with God, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, becoming in the likeness of men," etc. Wonderful sacrifice—He did not think it a thing to be grasped to aspire to His rightful position.