Questions and Answers by Editor

Pacific Seventh-day Adventist Publishing Association · Oakland, California · Mar 13, 1879

Questions and Answers.

By Editor

DOES not Jude 25; 1 Tim. 1:17; 1 John 5:7; John 17:11, 21, seem to make the Father and Son one person? P. M. P.

In this question you are unfortunate both in the method of expression, and the texts produced to affirm the query. It is impossible that one person should be both father and son to himself. If the Bible dealt in such incredibilities no one's reason could accept it. Understand, we do not charge absurdity on anybody's faith, for that is not the faith of anybody. Trinitarians do not believe that the Father and Son are one person.

Jude 25. God is in truth our Saviour. He gave the Son to be a ransom; he exalted him to grant repentance and remission; "God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself." We cannot imagine by what means any one would try to separate the Father from our salvation.

1 Tim. 1:17. This text has no close relation to the question.

1 John 5:7. All critics agree that this text is an interpolation. For proof at length see Dr. Clarke's Commentary. If it were genuine it would not prove the position, as may be seen in the following.

John 17:11, 21. A unity of the Father and Son is here clearly stated; but it is not unity of personality. "Keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one as we are." Verse 21. "That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us; that the world may believe that thou hast sent me."

Whatever is the nature of the union between the Father and the Son, he prayed that it might be shared by his disciples. No one would insist that he prayed that all his disciples may become one person! These texts sufficiently negative the idea of the question.

How is Gen. 6:6, 7, "And it repented the Lord that he had made man on the earth," harmonized with Num. 23:19, and 1 Sam. 15:29?

To repent is, primarily, to turn, or to change one's purpose. The original signifies also to grieve—to be grieved. It is not necessary to notice the shades of meaning of these words; the question may be solved without.

1. God may be grieved with the actions of his creatures. This is abundantly taught in the Scriptures.

2. God may, and does, change his purpose toward individuals, when the purpose is based on a condition. 1 Sam. 3:30. "I said indeed that thy house, and the house of thy father, should walk before me forever; but now the Lord saith, Be it far from me; for them that honor me I will honor, and they that despise me shall be lightly esteemed." He promised indeed to honor the house of Eli, but turned from that purpose because Eli and his family dishonored God. This is laid down as his uniform course of action, that if he speaks to do good to a people, and they turn from him, he will turn from (repent of) the good he spoke of them. See Jer. 18:1-10. Thus he dealt with Israel when he brought them out of Egypt. He promised to bring them into the land of Canaan, but because of their continued rebellions he changed his purpose, and the whole generation perished in Arabia. To them he said, "Ye shall know my breach of promise," margin, "altering of my purpose."

3. We must consider the subject or relation of an expression to be certain of its meaning. Thus, one text says, "with God nothing shall be impossible;" but this refers to his promise, and means that he is able to fulfill it. Another text says "it was impossible for God to lie." There is a verbal, but not an actual, contradiction in these texts. 1 Sam. 15:29 says, "The Strength of Israel will not lie nor repent." He will not falsify nor turn from his word,—"he is not a man, that he should repent." Men often betray the trust reposed in them. God never will. In this respect there is no "shadow of turning" with him.

On this and on many other subjects, the difficulty arises from taking an expression that applies to a certain subject or to certain circumstances, and applying it to circumstances of an entirely different nature.

Please explain Matt. 19:28. To whom does the promise refer, and to what time? Are the twelve tribes of Israel the literal seed of Abraham, or all the world? G. A. D.

1. The promise was probably made only to the apostles, as the "twelve thrones" would indicate.

2. The regeneration means the renewing, or new birth. This takes place when the Saviour comes on the throne of his glory. For this time compare Matt. 25:31, Rev. 20:1-4.

3. All the saints are called Israel, but there is no sense in which "all the world" are ever called Israel. This must refer to the tribes of literal Israel.

To J. W. B.—You will find your question answered if you will follow carefully the argument of Eld. Canright on Future Life, in the articles now going through the SIGNS. Or send for a book, "Nature and Destiny of Man," by Uriah Smith, at this Office. See our list of books.

To SISTER, S., Los Angeles. We know Mr. Keyser, to whom you refer, and think you justly style him a fanatic. We are not aware he was ever a preacher with the Seventh-day Adventists, but we personally know that he bitterly complained that he was not accepted in that capacity. We trust he will do no great injury to the cause of present truth, especially if he opposes it.